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April 1, 2008

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As a CONSTITUTIONALIST (Australia) I understood that the Supreme Court (U.S.A) some years ago ruled that the Magna Carta is applicable to the U.S. constitution.
Considering that in the Magna Carta Clause 30 it states “without his consent” & 31 it states “without the consent of the owner” then “eminent domain” clearly cannot be this all out taking of property (being it land, or other items)!
Where then Clause 39 refers to “except by the lawful judgment of his equals or by the law of the land” then this must be understood to mean that not the government but the courts ultimately impartially decide matters.
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If the government cannot taken take wood or cart for transport then considering Mitchell v. harmony, 54 U.S. 13 How. 115 115 (1851) one has to rethink if then this “EMINENT POWER” of acquisition was constitutionally valid!
While it is alleged that because of the 3rd Amendment and subsequently the 5th Amendment “EMINENT DOMAIN” powers were established, perhaps it was too large a view and one has to view it more narrowed by that it did no more but require just compensation but was not to authorise the acquisition of land that didn’t exist prior to the 3rd and 5th Amendment. Was the purpose of the Amendment to give the government acquisition powers or no more but to ensure “just compensation” and judges misconceived this.
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Also, in view of the Supreme Court having declared that the magna Carta applies to the U.S. constitution then should one revisit the “eminent domain” issue altogether and argue that if the State cannot take a persons wagon by the Magna Carta and by “eminent domain” can do so, then does this mean that the powers associated with “eminent domain” is misconceived?
It doesn’t appear logic that the state cannot take wood or a wagon but can take the land.
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Also, as is in the Commonwealth of Australia the meaning of the constitution must be interpreted as to what was applicable at the time of the creation of the constitution and as such where many current conditions then didn’t exist as such, like the high-rising building, etc, then the failure is not to restrict any “eminent domain powers to what was applicable at the time the amendments were passed.
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Upon this view it appears to me that the States lack any “eminent domain” powers to use for argument of "economic development" or other such issues as they simply didn’t exist as such at the time of the amendments to the constitution as is now being used.

Http://.www.schorel-hlavka.com
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My previsous post would not allow the inclusion of my URL and so I post it now.

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